My detailed answer to a
comment left by bstart.
Bstart, an attentive reader of
this blog, left an interesting comment which you can find here:
I quote bstart:
"Based on
your notes and chart of DJT of
http://www.dowtheoryinvestment.com/2012/09/dow-theory-update-for-sept-13-new.html
I interpret the SLV behavior differently. Is the following analysis right?
1. 5/16/12 - 26.37 SLV low
2. Reaction to 6/6/12 - 28.51 - higher than 6%, 10 trading days
3. From there expect pullback and move to higher highs
- Instead 6/28/12 25.63 new lower lows (primary bear continues)
- this is new leg in bear market
- look for a new secondary reaction retracing 6%, 10 trading days
4. new reaction on 7/30/12 - 27.36 (sorry for the wrong month !), 6.74%, nearly 1 month
5. pullback to 08/02/12 - 26.31
6. signal 08/16/12 - 27.37 - new bull market signal
Is the analysis right?"
My answer said that points 1
to 4 were OK.
However, where it got tricky
and thorny was from point 5 onwards.
So basically, bstart is
suggesting an alternative way to appraise secondary reactions, namely taking
into account (in a bear market) the rally stemming from the last recorded low.
Here is my answer, which is
addressed to bstart but is meant to benefit my entire readership:
Please bear in mind that
appraising secondary reactions is not math. Rhea wrote:
“Probably no
two students would agree on any rule for selecting and tabulating the important
secondary reactions."
All Dow Theorists, past and
present, agree that gauging secondary reactions is not an easy feat.
Furthermore, it appears that its rules (i.e 10 trading days, etc.) are bent
quite often. Even Rhea when he conducted a study of all secondary reactions
that occurred until 1931, he labeled as “secondary reaction” movements that
didn’t reach 10 trading days, much less the 3 weeks times he advocated in his
book. Other practitioners drop the retracement requirement altogether (i.e.
Martin Pring). Personally, I find that the Schannep way strikes a decent
balance between respecting basic Dow Theory rules (i.e. minimum time
requirement, minimum extent requirement and technical requirement) and
responsiveness (i.e. by accepting 10 days and even less in very exceptional
circumstances).
So, while as from point 5 I
will depart from your opinion, I am not meaning that you are wrong, or I am right.
Furthermore, your analysis is so well structured that you forced me to check my
own analysis again. This is totally positive for us both since we strive to be
good practitioners to succeed, hopefully, in the market. I don’t want to be a
proud idiot.
What now follows is only
applicable when I am dealing with “classical” Dow Theory (that is only two
markets: GLD, SLV; DIA, IYT; etc.).
Starting point: The principle
of confirmation is vital in Dow Theory.
The last rally that was in
“sync” (confirmed) was the one that finished on 6/6/2012. It is not necessary
that confirmation is given on the same day, but it doesn’t hurt. So the last
rally (counter movement against the hitherto primary bearish trend) finished on
6/6/2012.
While we can talk loosely of
“secondary reaction” in one specific market, under Dow Theory, we shouldn’t
talk of a secondary reaction if there is no confirmation.
Hence, the only rally we had
with confirmation was the one that finished on 6/6/2012.
It is true that SLV hit new
lows on 6/28/2012. However, GLD refused to confirm. Had GLD confirmed then we’d
had a new primary bear market leg, and you would be right counting the next
secondary reaction from this point (but for both GLD and SLV).
Since SLV new lows were
unconfirmed, the only confirmed rally I can consider is the one that started
from the confirmed lows of 05/16/2012. Hence, the highs made by SLV and GLD
on 06/06/2012 remain the only valid “relevant” highs.
Look at the recent gold and
silver highs of Oct 4. In
that day, I wrote that we had to “reset” the clock in order to count the days
for a new secondary reaction. Why? Because such new highs were confirmed and
hence negated importance to any previous pullback. The already incipient
secondary reaction was aborted. It is the same principle in action.
So both the starting point and
the ending point of a secondary reaction must be confirmed.
Back to our “secondary reaction”.
To sum up:
The last confirmed bear market
low (which is the starting point to count a reaction) was made on 05/16/2012.
It would also have been OK if one market made its low on that day and the other
on a similar date. The important thing is to look for the last confirmed lows
to determine the staring point of a likely reaction (and in a bull market, the last
confirmed highs, as we saw on Oct 4).
The last confirmed high was
made on 6/06/2012.
This confirmed movement in
both the starting point and finishing point is what I’d consider a secondary
reaction.
Since SLV made a new low on
6/28/2012 never to be confirmed by GLD, this is what made refuse considering
the lower high made by SLV on 07/30/2012 as the “relevant” high to be broken.
But your analysis has a big
germ of truth on it. What if there is a divergence that lasts several months
when, i.e. SLV continues making lower lows and GLD higher highs? Should it be
still considered as the relevant high to be broken by SLV the highs made on
6/06/2012? Do secondary reaction highs become fixed or lose relevance with
time? Should we consider newer, albeit lower highs, such as those of 07/30/2012
for SLV? These are legitimate questions and unluckily I have not found the
answer in my Dow Theory library (I think I have all books about the subject). However,
digging very deep in Rhea’s book (it dawned on me the fifth time I read it, and
because I was already in the markets) there are some useful tricks that help us
determine “relevant” high and low points. But this is the issue for a future
post.
However, in this very specific
instance, I feel that the secondary reaction highs were new and fresh enough
not to suggest an alternative interpretation of the Dow Theory.
Now you could raise a valid
point: “What about your analysis of the Transports you made here? In
this case you, Dow Theorist, clearly accepted a lower high as the relevant high
and were not so strict with the principle of confirmation.
My answer is as follows: When
dealing with stocks, I go full steam with the Schannep “flavor” which includes
three indices and merely demands (as with “classical” Dow Theory) confirmation
from just two of them.
The primary bull market in
stocks was signaled on June 29 when the SPY and DIA (Industrials) broke above
preceding secondary reaction highs. The Transports didn’t confirm. So from this
point on, I considered the Transports on their own. I didn’t need them any more
in order to qualify the bull market. Since I didn't need to resort to
“confirmed new lows” as the starting point of un upward secondary reaction or
“confirmed new highs” as the finishing point thereof, I just focused on rallies
and declines occurring in the Transports in isolation. Hence I loosely used the
expression “secondary reaction” referring to the action of the Transports
alone. But we have to bear in mind that the market was already in a bull
market. This is why even now I am focused on the last high made by the
Transports as a valid entry point for latecomers (read this post) . It
is a technical valid entry point, albeit it has been determined in isolation.
However, this is OK, since we know that the primary trend of the market is
bullish, so with the Transports I don’t need to require triple confirmation,
but merely sound technical action on its own.
I know a saga of posts
concerning the appraising of secondary reactions under Dow Theory is due. They
are vital because the more proficient we become in spotting them, the better we
will be able to detect primary bull markets and to put our trailing stops. I hope I find one day the time to do it. In
the meantime, I am too busy with real-life
activity and keeping updated this blog with ongoing market action.
I do thank emails and comments
that prompt me to check my premises. We all win.
Sincerely,
The Dow Theorist.
Thank you for the useful clarifications.
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